Ăĺ±±˝űµŘ

Rule 1.2(c)

  • 9.8(c)
  • Annex I
  • Annex II
  • Annex III
  • Appendix B
  • Appendix C
  • Appendix D
  • Article 3.9(g)
  • Article 4.17(b)
  • Chapter IV
  • Chapter X
  • Chapter XI
  • Disposition 9.6(c)(iii)
  • Provisional Rule 11.1
  • Rule 1
  • Rule 1.1
  • Rule 1.1(c)
  • Rule 1.1(j)
  • Rule 1.2
  • Rule 1.2(a)
  • Rule 1.2(b)
  • Rule 1.2(c)
  • Rule 1.2(d)
  • Rule 1.2(e)
  • Rule 1.2(f)
  • Rule 1.2(g)
  • Rule 1.2(h)
  • Rule 1.2(i)
  • Rule 1.2(j)
  • Rule 1.2(k)
  • Rule 1.2(p)
  • Rule 1.2(q)
  • Rule 1.2(r)
  • Rule 1.2(s)
  • Rule 1.2(t)
  • Rule 1.3
  • Rule 1.3(a)
  • Rule 1.5
  • Rule 1.5(a)
  • Rule 1.5(c)
  • Rule 1.6
  • Rule 1.7
  • Rule 1.9
  • Rule 10
  • Rule 10.1
  • Rule 10.1(a)
  • Rule 10.1(b)
  • Rule 10.1(c)
  • Rule 10.2
  • Rule 10.2(a)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(i)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(ii)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(ix)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(v)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(vii)
  • Rule 10.2(a)(viii)
  • Rule 10.2(b)
  • Rule 10.2(b)(i-iii)
  • Rule 10.2(b)(i)
  • Rule 10.2(b)(iii)
  • Rule 10.2(c)
  • Rule 10.2(vii)
  • Rule 10.3
  • Rule 10.3(a)
  • Rule 10.3(b)
  • Rule 10.3(c)
  • Rule 10.4
  • Rule 10.4(a)
  • Rule 10.5
  • Rule 101.1
  • Rule 101.2
  • Rule 101.2(b)
  • Rule 101.2(c)
  • Rule 101.2(d)
  • Rule 101.2(p)
  • Rule 101.3
  • Rule 101.3(a)
  • Rule 103.12
  • Rule 103.15
  • Rule 103.20(b)
  • Rule 104.11
  • Rule 104.12
  • Rule 104.12(b)(ii)
  • Rule 104.12(b)(iii)
  • Rule 104.12(c)
  • Rule 104.13
  • Rule 104.14
  • Rule 104.14(a)(ii)
  • Rule 104.15
  • Rule 104.15(b)(ii)
  • Rule 104.3
  • Rule 104.3(a)
  • Rule 104.3(b)
  • Rule 104.7
  • Rule 104.7(c)
  • Rule 104.8
  • Rule 105.1(c)
  • Rule 105.2
  • Rule 105.2(a)
  • Rule 105.3
  • Rule 107.20(i)
  • Rule 107.9
  • Rule 108.1
  • Rule 109.1(c)
  • Rule 109.1(c)(i)
  • Rule 109.3
  • Rule 109.4(d)
  • Rule 109.7
  • Rule 109.7(a)
  • Rule 11
  • Rule 11.1
  • Rule 11.1(a)
  • Rule 11.1(c)
  • Rule 11.2
  • Rule 11.2 (c)
  • Rule 11.2 (d)
  • Rule 11.2(a)
  • Rule 11.2(b)
  • Rule 11.2(c)
  • Rule 11.2(d)
  • Rule 11.3
  • Rule 11.3(b)(i)
  • Rule 11.3(c)
  • Rule 11.3(ii)
  • Rule 11.4
  • Rule 11.4(a)
  • Rule 11.4(b)
  • Rule 11.4(c)
  • Rule 11.4(d)
  • Rule 11.4(g)
  • Rule 11.5(d)
  • Rule 110.1
  • Rule 110.2
  • Rule 110.2(a)
  • Rule 110.3
  • Rule 110.4
  • Rule 110.4(b)
  • Rule 110.4(b)(i)
  • Rule 110.7(b)
  • Rule 110.7(d)
  • Rule 111.1
  • Rule 111.2.2
  • Rule 111.2(a)
  • Rule 111.2(a)(i)
  • Rule 111.2(f)
  • Rule 112.2(b)
  • Rule 112.3
  • Rule 12.3
  • Rule 12.3(b)
  • Rule 13.1
  • Rule 13.1(a)
  • Rule 13.1(c)
  • Rule 13.1(d)
  • Rule 13.1(e)
  • Rule 13.1(f)
  • Rule 13.11
  • Rule 13.2
  • Rule 13.4
  • Rule 14
  • Rule 14(b)(ii)
  • Rule 17
  • Rule 2.1
  • Rule 204.2
  • Rule 3.1
  • Rule 3.1(b)
  • Rule 3.10
  • Rule 3.10(a)
  • Rule 3.10(b)
  • Rule 3.11(a)
  • Rule 3.13
  • Rule 3.14
  • Rule 3.14(a)
  • Rule 3.15
  • Rule 3.15(ii)
  • Rule 3.16
  • Rule 3.17
  • Rule 3.17(c)
  • Rule 3.17(ii)
  • Rule 3.18
  • Rule 3.18(a)
  • Rule 3.18(b)
  • Rule 3.18(c)
  • Rule 3.18(c)(ii)
  • Rule 3.18(c)(iii)
  • Rule 3.18(e)
  • Rule 3.19
  • Rule 3.19(a)
  • Rule 3.19(g)
  • Rule 3.2(g)
  • Rule 3.3(a)
  • Rule 3.4
  • Rule 3.4(a)
  • Rule 3.4(e)
  • Rule 3.5
  • Rule 3.6
  • Rule 3.6(a)
  • Rule 3.6(a)(iv)
  • Rule 3.6(b)
  • Rule 3.6(d)
  • Rule 3.7
  • Rule 3.7(c)
  • Rule 3.9
  • Rule 3.9(b)
  • Rule 301
  • Rule 301.3(i)
  • Rule 304.4
  • Rule 309.3
  • Rule 309.4
  • Rule 4
  • Rule 4.1
  • Rule 4.12
  • Rule 4.12(a)
  • Rule 4.12(b)
  • Rule 4.12(c)
  • Rule 4.12(c)
  • Rule 4.13
  • Rule 4.13(a)
  • Rule 4.13(b)
  • Rule 4.13(c)
  • Rule 4.14
  • Rule 4.14 (b)
  • Rule 4.14(b)
  • Rule 4.15
  • Rule 4.16
  • Rule 4.16
  • Rule 4.16
  • Rule 4.16(b)(i)
  • Rule 4.16(b)(ii)
  • Rule 4.17
  • Rule 4.17(c)
  • Rule 4.18
  • Rule 4.18(a)
  • Rule 4.18(c)
  • Rule 4.19
  • Rule 4.2
  • Rule 4.3
  • Rule 4.4
  • Rule 4.4(a)
  • Rule 4.4(b)
  • Rule 4.5
  • Rule 4.5(a)
  • Rule 4.5(b)
  • Rule 4.5(c)
  • Rule 4.5(d)
  • Rule 4.6
  • Rule 4.7
  • Rule 4.7(a)
  • Rule 4.8
  • Rule 4.8(b)
  • Rule 4.9(a)
  • Rule 5.1(e)(ii)
  • Rule 5.2
  • Rule 5.2(c)
  • Rule 5.3
  • Rule 5.3(c)
  • Rule 5.3(e)
  • Rule 5.3(f)
  • Rule 5.3(ii)
  • Rule 6.1
  • Rule 6.2
  • Rule 6.2(a)
  • Rule 6.2(b)
  • Rule 6.2(b)(ii)
  • Rule 6.2(f)
  • Rule 6.2(g)
  • Rule 6.2(j)
  • Rule 6.2(k)
  • Rule 6.2(k)(iii)
  • Rule 6.29b)(i)
  • Rule 6.3(a)
  • Rule 6.4
  • Rule 6.5
  • Rule 6.6
  • Rule 7
  • Rule 7.1
  • Rule 7.1(a)
  • Rule 7.1(a)(iv)
  • Rule 7.1(b)
  • Rule 7.10
  • Rule 7.14
  • Rule 7.14(d)
  • Rule 7.15
  • Rule 7.15(h)
  • Rule 7.16
  • Rule 7.2
  • Rule 7.4
  • Rule 7.6
  • Rule 8.1
  • Rule 8.1(a)
  • Rule 8.1(f)
  • Rule 8.2
  • Rule 9
  • Rule 9.1
  • Rule 9.1(a)
  • Rule 9.11
  • Rule 9.11 (a) (vii)
  • Rule 9.12
  • Rule 9.2
  • Rule 9.2(a)
  • Rule 9.2(b)
  • Rule 9.2(c)
  • Rule 9.3
  • Rule 9.3(a)(i)
  • Rule 9.3(c)(i)
  • Rule 9.4
  • Rule 9.5
  • Rule 9.6
  • Rule 9.6
  • Rule 9.6 (c)(i)
  • Rule 9.6.(b)
  • Rule 9.6(a)
  • Rule 9.6(b)
  • Rule 9.6(c)
  • Rule 9.6(c)(i)
  • Rule 9.6(c)(ii)
  • Rule 9.6(c)(iii)
  • Rule 9.6(c)(v)
  • Rule 9.6(e)
  • Rule 9.6(f)
  • Rule 9.6(g)
  • Rule 9.6(h)
  • Rule 9.6(i)
  • Rule 9.7
  • Rule 9.7(a)
  • Rule 9.7(b)
  • Rule 9.7(d)
  • Rule 9.8
  • Rule 9.8(a)
  • Rule 9.9
  • Showing 21 - 28 of 28

    Due process rights: Disciplinary proceedings are of an administrative and not of a criminal nature, hence criminal law procedures do not apply. The Applicant’s due process rights are contained in the relevant administrative issuances, under which rights such as the right to counsel and to be informed about the charges against him do only apply as of the moment the disciplinary procedure is initiated (charge letter), but not at the stage of the preliminary investigation. The right to cross examine witnesses does not apply at any stage of the administrative procedure, but only once the case is...

    Regarding the question of whether material facts were sufficiently established, the Tribunal concluded that they were sufficiently established except the allegations that the Applicant instructed other staff members to provide false information. The parties disputed whether the Applicant was a supervisor as charged. The Applicant did not fall under the category of “supervisor “ as per the UNON Security and Safety Service (UNON/SSS) SOP No 13. Undisputedly though, the Applicant carried out team leader functions and the UNON/SSS Daily Orders which assigned the Applicant to provide “security...

    The offences alleged in the instant case were of a complex nature and were framed in a manner that required several discrete facts to be established so that a sanction of separation could be justified. Each element of the allegations of misconduct the Administration found to have been established was therefore subject to review. With the account of one person to be weighed against another, the Respondent had to properly consider issues of credibility on the record. There was no indication that the Respondent considered the two possible motives. The Applicant’s case was that the disciplinary...

    The Tribunal is satisfied that the Applicant acted diligently with respect to the filing of his request for management evaluation and met the deadlines set forth by the MEU. This is particularly relevant as the reason for the elapsed time to file such request was the attempt at informal resolution of the dispute under the auspices of the UNOMS. The application is receivable ratione materiae. As the parties entered mediation before the Applicant’s filing of a request for management evaluation, the applicable provision for the calculation of the 90-day deadline to file an application is art. 8.1...

    The offences alleged in the instant case were of a complex nature and were framed in a manner that required several discrete facts to be established so that a sanction of separation could be justified. Each element of the allegations of misconduct the Administration found to have been established was therefore subject to review. With the account of one person to be weighed against another, the Respondent had to properly consider issues of credibility on the record. There was no indication that the Respondent considered the two possible motives. The Applicant’s case was that the disciplinary...

    Under Sanwidi, it is not for the Tribunal to review the wisdom of the USG/DGACM’s decision among other all viable options, but rather to assess the legality by which the decision was reached. In the given circumstances, the Tribunal finds that the decision to transfer the Applicant was not “arbitrary or capricious, motivated by prejudice or extraneous factors” with reference to Chemingui, or that “relevant matters [were] ignored and irrelevant matters considered” or the decision was “absurd or perverse” as per Sanwidi. By itself, the Tribunal therefore finds no issue in the transfer decision...

    Public interest, transparency, scrutiny and accountability are not impaired by the removal of the Applicant’s name from the public domain. Consequently, and taking into consideration the sensitive nature of the facts, which involve alleged “sexual exploitation of a vulnerable person”, the Tribunal grants the Applicant’s request for anonymity. The decision not to renew the Applicant’s fixed-term appointment, communicated to him on 23 September 2019, is not grounded on disciplinary considerations, which were the subject of the instant case, and constitutes an autonomous administrative decision...

    There was clear and convincing evidence that the Applicant used his position of authority to unduly influence the continued employment of FM at GITTS, MINUSCA. The fact that the Applicant failed to disclose a conflict of interest arising from his sexual relationship with FM and his continued involvement in her recruitment at GITTS, MINUSCA were proved by clear and convincing evidence. The Applicant sent interview questions to the complainant, and there was clear and convincing evidence that the Applicant used his position of authority as Chief of GITTS, MINUSCA, to unduly influence the...